** Thinking Activity:- Dryden's Essay: of Dramatic Poesy.....
* Aristotle's Definition:-
"Tragedy is an art of imitation of an action that is serious,complete and of a certain magnitude;in the language embellished with each kind of artistic ornament,the several kinds being found in separate parts of the play in the form of action; not in narrative; through pity and terror effecting the proper purgation-- Catharsis of these and similar emotions."
* Dryden's Definition:-
"A play ought to be a just and lively image of human nature; representing its passion and humours and the change of fortune to which it is subjected for the delight and instruction of mankind.."
1) Do you any difference between Aristotle's definition of Tragedy and Dryden's definition of Play?
_ There is a huge differences between Aristotle's definition of tragedy and Dryden's definition of play.
Dryden used words like, 'Image'.. According to him,Drama is an 'image' of 'human nature' and the image is
'just' and 'lively'... By using the word 'just';Dryden seems to imply that literature imitates human actions.
Where as Aristotle says that,"Tragedy is an imitation of an action that is serious and also having magnitude complete in itself.." and he ended his definition with the word 'CATHARSIS'...
2) If you are supposed to give your personal predilection, would you be on the side of the Ancient or the Modern? Please give reasons.
-I would prefer to go with moderns,ancients are important but,they are stuck at their point of view. Yes, it is true that moderns are sit on the back of ancients and they can see because they are at height.
3) Do you think that the arguments presented in favour of the French plays and against English plays are appropriate? (Say for example,Death should not be performed as it is neither 'just' not 'liely' image, displaying duel fight with blunted swords, thousands of soldiers marching represented as five on stage, mingling of mirth and serious, multiple plots etc.)
- According to me, both the plays are equal and both the plays have their own charm. No one is inferior or superior. The arguments are presented against english drama and in favour of french drama. because French drama follows three unities; 'Time', 'Place', and 'Action'...
4) What would be your preference so far as poetic or prosaic dialogues are concerned in the play?
- I would like to prefer poetic dialogues because its provide aesthetic delight and in the play use of rhyme are also shows importance of poetic dialogue. Rhyme affects readers emotions and feelings..
So, if we use poetic dialogue in their proper place, its became more beautiful.....
Thank You....😊
* Aristotle's Definition:-
"Tragedy is an art of imitation of an action that is serious,complete and of a certain magnitude;in the language embellished with each kind of artistic ornament,the several kinds being found in separate parts of the play in the form of action; not in narrative; through pity and terror effecting the proper purgation-- Catharsis of these and similar emotions."
* Dryden's Definition:-
"A play ought to be a just and lively image of human nature; representing its passion and humours and the change of fortune to which it is subjected for the delight and instruction of mankind.."
1) Do you any difference between Aristotle's definition of Tragedy and Dryden's definition of Play?
_ There is a huge differences between Aristotle's definition of tragedy and Dryden's definition of play.
Dryden used words like, 'Image'.. According to him,Drama is an 'image' of 'human nature' and the image is
'just' and 'lively'... By using the word 'just';Dryden seems to imply that literature imitates human actions.
Where as Aristotle says that,"Tragedy is an imitation of an action that is serious and also having magnitude complete in itself.." and he ended his definition with the word 'CATHARSIS'...
2) If you are supposed to give your personal predilection, would you be on the side of the Ancient or the Modern? Please give reasons.
-I would prefer to go with moderns,ancients are important but,they are stuck at their point of view. Yes, it is true that moderns are sit on the back of ancients and they can see because they are at height.
3) Do you think that the arguments presented in favour of the French plays and against English plays are appropriate? (Say for example,Death should not be performed as it is neither 'just' not 'liely' image, displaying duel fight with blunted swords, thousands of soldiers marching represented as five on stage, mingling of mirth and serious, multiple plots etc.)
- According to me, both the plays are equal and both the plays have their own charm. No one is inferior or superior. The arguments are presented against english drama and in favour of french drama. because French drama follows three unities; 'Time', 'Place', and 'Action'...
4) What would be your preference so far as poetic or prosaic dialogues are concerned in the play?
- I would like to prefer poetic dialogues because its provide aesthetic delight and in the play use of rhyme are also shows importance of poetic dialogue. Rhyme affects readers emotions and feelings..
So, if we use poetic dialogue in their proper place, its became more beautiful.....
Thank You....😊
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